(NEW EP OUT NOW!)
Do the prohibitions for what a man is allowed to do in Deuteronomy 22 apply to married men only, to unmarried men only, or to both married and unmarried men
If the prohibitions apply to both married and unmarried men
Then elsewhere where the word man is used to allow a man to marry a woman then they allow a married man to marry a woman and do not only exclusively allow a unmarried man to marry a woman
Married woman are not allowed to marry a man Romans 7 & elsewhere
The cases where the Bible forbid a married man from marrying a unmarried woman are very specific and it would not be right to expand them beyond the situations in which they apply
Also run on sentences always being false is a logical fallacy
Although some run one sentences can be false other run one sentences maybe true
No dude I just couldn't understand what you were saying
Read Deuteronomy 22
Contemplate whether the word man applies to
A Both married and unmarried men
B Married men only
C Unmarried men only
Now Exodus 21, Deuteronomy 21, 24 and 25 allow a man to get married
Using the same definition of man you used in Deuteronomy 22 do they allow a married man to get married?
