@Electronwarrior
Deleted & redrafted
There was an article in the Atlantic where they tried to debunk it & still admitted Jewish slave ownership but tried to claim Jews did not own slaves because they were Jews but instead Jews owned slaves because Jews lived in cities but did not mention that Jews lived in cities because they were Jews
Wrong link
right link in next post
They created a decoy about Jews dominating basketball instead of slavery
The relatively high proportion of Jewish slaveholding was a function of the concentration of Jews in cities and towns, not of their descent or religion
https://www.theatlantic.com/magazine/archive/1995/09/slavery-and-the-jews/376462/
Archived
In other words Jews owned slaves but not because their Jewish religion or ancestry but only because they tended to live in cities
What if people who lived in cities were more likely to own slaves because Jews are more likely to live in cities?
