This is where shit started falling apart in the west
Does women receiving voting rights in Mormon Utah before 1910 have any connection with Joseph Smith marrying women who were already married to other men and how Mormonism allows polyandry in which one woman can marry more than one man at a time without breaking their rules so that Joseph Smith could marry women that were already married to other men?
Maybe they wanted to impress the women by giving them voting so they could get more wives even if they were other men's wives?
Also Utah, Idaho and Wyoming I thought were considered to be conservative but gave women voting rights earlier although Colorado is not considered more conservative except maybe in the Libertarian drug legalization way as far as I know
Do you think that maybe if they gave women voting rights earlier then they saw the consequences of doing so earlier because the consequences reached them earlier and they started to change around politically earlier
